March 25, 2008Inventor Admits New Bipolar Gene Test Has ProblemsThere's been quite a rush of researchers lately proclaiming that they've developed a genetic test that will tell someone if they have bipolar disorder. The latest example comes straight out of my old stomping grounds of San Diego where John Kelsoe, a UCSD psych researcher, has developed an alleged home gene test for bipolar disorder and works with a company named Psynomics--the name is a riff on genomics--to market the test at $399 a pop. Beyond my usual concerns about these tests, which I'll come to in a second, the researcher admits: "Kelsoe, 52, acknowledges that bipolar disorder probably results from a combination of genetic factors and life experiences, and that the presence of these gene variations does not at all mean that someone will, in fact, develop the disease. He admits, too, that his findings about the genetic basis of the illness are far from complete. Actually, having lived through 20 years of the anything-will-help paradigm, I am going to have to shake my head at all of this. Would you buy a test from a company that admits that the test is incomplete? I wouldn't. I also cannto figure out who would invest in the company in the first place. There is no legitimate basis upon which researchers can claim any longer that bipolar disorder is a strictly genetic disorder, and it's really time for them to stop hyping it as such. Such talk creates a set of false expectations for patients with bipolar disorder (gene therapy will cure me!) and encourages them to not do the psychological grunt work they must do in order to live productive lives. I especially worry about this test being used on children and the results being employed by parents, doctors, schools and so on to determine how the child will lead the rest of their lives. And that's even assuming that bipolar disorder exists in children, which I think doesn't exist in kids. Even more, these tests, as I have noted before, could wind up being sources of profound discrimination for patients, or potential patients, and could lead to an epidemic of misdiagnosis. In the above article, Kelsoe says that this test will create an objective standard for diagnosing bipolar disorder. I heartily disagree. There isn't even anything approaching consensus for what genes are involved in, or predictive of, bipolar disorder, so I'm not sure where Kelsoe is coming from. "Among hundreds of families Kelsoe has studied, one of the gene variations in the Psynomics test showed up in 1 percent of those unaffected by the disorder versus 3 percent who are affected. The other variation appeared in 7 percent of those without bipolar compared to 15 percent who have the disease." That's not a particularly impressive correlation between gene variants and the disorder. Yes, let's all go make people take this test and medicate them on the basis of an incomplete test for a disorder that is poorly understood. Makes perfect sense. Posted by Philip Dawdy at March 25, 2008 12:05 AMComments
Glad you're back Philip! You are right that this test could result in profound discrimination. Imagine performing a genetic test at birth to see which babies will grow up to be entitled to full status as human beings and which will be labeled bipolar and thus not allowed in the professions. Maybe genetic testing should be mandatory prior and people sterilized if they carry the bipolar gene. Oh, and perhaps they can throw in a Jewish dna test too. This really is how the Nazi movement started. And then there's this, all of the contributions to human society by people labeled as bipolar will not be present if those carrying the gene are weeded out and discriminated against. And this, possibly good result for some, if people labeled bipolar test negative for the gene, can they be released from forced treatment, psych hospitals, lose their disability check, not be allowed psych meds? Posted by: Sally at March 24, 2008 11:19 PMOne can have this debate with inherited blindness or deafness being a disability that should be prevented, the question is (if you can test for bipolar) is bipolar equivalent to blindness and deafness? Posted by: mark p.s. at March 25, 2008 05:15 AMYou have an award waiting for pick up at my blog! Kind of funny how the article say that Kelsoe "spent his career trying to identify the biological roots of bipolar disorder." This is like claiming to spend one's career studying the root causes of the migratory habits of the Himalayan yeti in the absence of evidence that yeti exist at all, let alone whether they migrate or just stay put. There has never been a legitimate basis for 'researchers' or anyone else with scientific pretensions to claim that 'bipolar disorder' is proven to have any sort of biological causation, and anyone who's been claiming that it's 'strictly genetic' is either ignorant or lying. There is plenty of space in science for people to put forth all kinds of far-out hypotheses, but no room for making fraudulent claims to truth without evidence. I love the line about "the notoriously tricky practice of diagnosing bipolar disorder based purely on a person's behavior." Even in the DSM, they don't try to claim that the construct 'bipolar disorder' (or any other 'mental illness') consists of anything beyond a person's though and behavior. John Kelsoe is just one more shyster trying to turn a profit by exploiting human misery. Posted by: UnderTheThresher at March 25, 2008 07:39 AMI have never had a problem with the idea of a genetic base for manic depression IN SOME FAMILIES. My maternal grandmother,great aunt, father, self, and both children had/have this condition. Further, throughout both sides of the family are relatives with depression, anxiety, phobia, and the like. Of this bunch, three were killed by psychiatric ministrations and one committed suicide. I have gotten strong arguments from a number of people in the mental health world about this thesis..."well, surely it also was environmental?" How do I know. I don't even want to know. I just want some retribution against Pharma for the killing part. Posted by: Martha at March 25, 2008 01:24 PMHi there, I'm just a newbie bipolar blogger, and I've clearly missed a whole bunch of stuff here. Bipolar disorder is not genetic? Cuz my mother is bipolar and her mother is bipolar and I am bipolar...and I guess I don't understand the science behind this being environmental. Can you point me in the direction of this research? I feel like this is coming off like I'm being flip, but I am genuinely asking for guidance! Posted by: BipolarGirl at March 25, 2008 07:52 PMBipolarGirl welcome. As the researcher for the blood test admits in the above article, there's no research to indicate bipolar disorder is genetic though that's the how the purported disease is described in the literature. When you say your grandmother, mother, and you are all bipolar, I'd say learned behavior passed from daughter to daughter combined with a culture and maybe family in which the three of you are taught to think of your feelings and behaviors as pathological, and with bipolar so trendy the fact that if you go to a doctor and tell him you have a first degree relative with the label you'll get it too. To say that a behavior is genetic is a dangerous game. To say that bipolar is a disorder is also dangerous. Maybe some people have more extreme moods than others, maybe this style of relating is an evolutionary response to the changes that need to occur if human life is to continue on this planet. This doesn't mean it's wrong for you to choose to control your moods with drugs, but it does mean it's wrong for society to judge you as ill or abnormal for having these moods in my opinion. Posted by: SAlly at March 26, 2008 04:09 AMBipolar genetic? Not bloody likely since bipolar is behavior or at least someone's opinion of that behavior. The problem with "genetics" is the connotation that "genetics" are predictive or causal. With the exception of some single gene disorders like Huntington's, genetics but play a role in disease susceptibility, onset, progression, drug metabolism, and so on. The role genetics play is almost always to increase or decrease a population probability of such. For example: if a drug is metabolized via P450 2D6 (as some drugs are), there are certain polymorphisms associated with poor metabolism or extensive metabolism. If you have the gene variant associated with poor 2D6 metabolism, you are at an increased risk of having an adverse event. This does not mean you will have a bad reaction, but the risk is higher than those who are extensive metabolizers - they can tolerate higher drug levels as a GROUP. I find it highly unlikely a biomarker to detect a "mental" illness will ever be reliable because the diagnosis criteria is so utterly subjective. he underlying biological hypothesis is inherently flawed, and the prescribed drugs actually damage the brain which actually makes any sort of real biochemical/imaging analysis impossible. It's really bloody frustrating. The brain adapts, re-adapts, and is marvelously malleable. Are your neurotransmitter levels set by your mindset or vice-versa? Your brain just won't sit idly whilst you pump chemicals into it... That is until your brain becomes sufficiently damaged - what Peter Breggin and others have called a chemical lobotomy. Posted by: Paul at March 26, 2008 07:39 AMQuite frequently I hear people state that 'mental illnesses' must have a genetic component because they seem to run in families, but I think that this argument falls apart when we examine it more closely. First of all, nearly every family has a number of members who are odd, eccentric, or 'mentally ill,' and it's generally easy to find at lest one person in each generation that seems to display 'symptoms' of the 'illness' we're looking for, especially looking back to try to make inferences about people who are no longer living. But considering how high the estimates for the prevalence of 'mental illness' in the general population are, it's not surprising that even small families would have a lot of it. For example, if the prevalence of 'mental illness' is 20%, chances are good than two generations of a small family consisting of only four parents and six kids would have two diagnosable members, without the need for any genetic connection between their 'illnesses.' Also, there is a powerful confirmation bias at work when psychiatrists are looking to diagnose people. Because of the dogma that 'mental illness' are genetic, a person is much more likely to get a particular 'diagnosis' if they have relatives with that label. For example, a person presenting exactly the same 'symptoms' would be much more likely to get a 'schizophrenia spectrum' label if they disclosed having a relative with psychosis, and much more likely to get a 'bipolar' label if their relative is believed to have had 'manic depression.' Most importantly, there is a huge difference between a trait being heritable and being genetic. Heritable means that it can be passed from parent to offspring, not that it is necessarily genetic. For example, if someone is Christian, and their parents are Christian, and their parents' parents are Christian, going all the way back 2000 years, that certainly suggests that religion is heritable. But does it mean that it's genetic? I for one, don't think that the fact that people are much more likely than random chance to practice the same religion as their parents and forbearers means that the burden would be on skeptics of a religion-is-passed-genetically claim to come up with research somehow showing that it's just environmental. Posted by: UnderTheThresher at March 26, 2008 07:48 AMWell, the concepts of inheritance are deeply embedded in genetics as we each receive genetic material from both our parents. What people generally refer to though are are the inheritance of dominant and recessive genes or mutations/polymorphisms. Your point is spot on imho. In my opinion, behavior is largely a learned trait. Whilst we may have certain genetic predispositions that may make us more susceptible to react in a particular way, DNA does not make decisions for you. We are all responsible for how we choose to behave. The problem is that certain "Dr. wanna-bes" are turning a behavioral issue into a bona fide disease. They can't cure this disease and will tell you do take these drugs or else. Refusing to comply is proof of disease. It's bizarre, but it has the force of law now. Posted by: Paul at March 26, 2008 11:25 AMPaul, you are right. As has been pointed out elsewhere (http://www.bonkersinstitute.org/about.html) the genetics argument is a bit of BS. UnderTheThresher's Christian example is on point. If my parents were Catholic and their grandparents were Catholic and I, raised in the Catholic Church, by relatives who cannot conceive of a world outside of Catholicism, become Catholic, does that mean Catholicism is genetic? What about people in Asian countries who eat rice because it's what they were raised on, does that mean a diet based on rice is genetic? Of course we come close to forgetting that Hitler and his psychiatrists believed that all sorts of character traits were genetic, in fact these folks were eugenicists...look what that got us, it ain't mental health imho! Posted by: Sally at March 26, 2008 12:08 PMPaul is correct when bringing up what many ppl do not understand, is how the medication [ALL meds] are processed via the liver, etc. there are blood tests for that, and can help determine if anyone could have adverse events due slow metabolizing etc. Just because a person's body processes medication adversely, does not mean they are bipolar. It means they cannot tolerate certain chemicals/drugs in their bodies, and this DOES run in my family. Doesn't mean bipolar does, it means the drug sensitivy DOES. There are no difinitive diagnostic tools to dx bipolar, and no drugs prove themselves to work, it's not a wonder it's a guessing gamel; and just because "bipolars" react [at times] to anti depressants, does not mean they are bipolar and some psych's use that as a baseline for a diagnosis. If people would stop and take a look at how these are chemicals, look at it from a chemistry point of view and question how the changes in liver, and the brain can happen for instance, one might understand how a person gets MIS diagnosed bipolar. It is impossible to go back into a family tree and say with clarity "they were all bipolar or SZ" because who knows what was the driving force per behavior witnessed. Was it alcohol? lead paint? mold and pollution inside homes? exposed to chemicals in factory jobs? to sit back and look at certain family members comes down often to hearsay stories. Don't forget the Kennedy sister who had the lobotomy; for all I can understand when reading about her, she was high spirited and a rebel according to "standards" expected back then. Now she probably would be on Seroquel, Abilify and God knows what else to squash her personality. This is all my opinion, based on a decade of reading [things such as 2D6 pathway etc.]When I would ask the psych's about that they had a dead pan blank stare. They are not chemists, or [most of the time] do not understand HOW these meds work, they give the patient this famous line and we've all heard it: "Don't know why they work they just do." or "trial and error, just have to find the right med cocktail"....and decades later they wonder why they have not found it. Posted by: Stephany at March 27, 2008 09:06 AMWow. How many of you suffer from Bipolar or any mental defect? Or for that matter a nastey case of diareah? If it were so simple to merely behave or control your emotions or say will your diareah away wouldn't that be nifty and no problem at all.Just don't drink alcohol and you won't be a drunk. Many, many things people believe are weakness, and can be remedied if you just stop it. Post a comment
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